Kaplan MN553 Final Exam Answers Part 1 (Score 100%)
Question 1
Question 1
The Best Pharmaceuticals for Children Act:
Includes a pediatric exclusivity rule which extends the patent on drugs studied in children
Establishes a committee that writes guidelines for pediatric prescribing
Provides funding for new drug development aimed at children
Encourages manufacturers specifically to develop pediatric formulations
Question 2
1 / 1 point
Patient education regarding taking iron replacements includes:
Doubling the dose if they miss a dose to maintain therapeutic levels
Taking the iron with milk or crackers if it upsets their stomach
Iron is best taken on an empty stomach with juice
Antacids such as Tums may help the upset stomach caused by iron therapy
Question 3
1 / 1 point
The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) prescriber include:
Nurses know more about Pharmacology than other prescribers because they take it both in their basic nursing program and in their APRN program.
Nurses care for the patient from a holistic approach and include the patient in decision making regarding their care.
APRNs are less likely to prescribe narcotics and other controlled substances.
APRNs are able to prescribe independently in all states, whereas a physician’s assistant needs to have a physician supervising their practice.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy
Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic
Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed
Question 5
1 / 1 point
The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is:
The second dose of MMR “boosts” the immunity built from the first dose.
Two vaccines 1 month apart is the standard dosing for all live virus vaccines.
If the two MMR vaccine doses are given too close together there is a greater likelihood of severe localized reaction to the vaccine.
Only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR.
Question 6
1 / 1 point
Instructions for the use of nicotine gum include:
Chew the gum quickly to get a peak effect.
The gum should be “parked” in the buccal space between chewing.
Acidic drinks such as coffee help with the absorption of the nicotine.
The highest abstinence rates occur if the patient chews the gum when he or she is having cravings.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
Leonard is completing a 6-month regimen to treat tuberculosis (TB). Monitoring of a patient on TB therapy includes:
Monthly sputum cultures
Monthly chest x-ray
Bronchoscopy every 3 months
All of the above
Question 8
1 / 1 point
Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:
Topical antipruritics
Oral corticosteroids for 2 to 3 weeks
Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
Question 9
1 / 1 point
The role of the NP in the use of herbal medication is to:
Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies
Recommend common over-the-counter herbs to patients
Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care
Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers
Question 10
1 / 1 point
Elena Vasquez’s primary language is Spanish, and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed?
Use correct medical terminology because Spanish has a Latin base.
Use a family member who speaks more English to act as an interpreter.
Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can act as an interpreter.
Use careful, detailed explanations.
Question 11
0 / 1 point
A woman who is pregnant and has hyperthyroidism is best managed by a specialty team who will most likely treat her with:
Methimazole
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
Radioactive iodine
Nothing, treatment is best delayed until after her pregnancy ends
Question 12
1 / 1 point
The first-line drug choice for a previously healthy adult patient diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia would be:
Ciprofloxacin
Azithromycin
Amoxicillin
Doxycycline
Question 13
1 / 1 point
Sadie is a 90-year-old patient who requires a new prescription. What changes in drug distribution with aging would influence prescribing for Sadie?
Increased volume of distribution
Decreased lipid solubility
Decreased plasma proteins
Increased muscle-to-fat ratio
Question 14
1 / 1 point
Patients who are prescribed exogenous androgens need to be warned that decreased libido:
Is an unusual side effect of androgens and should be reported to the provider
Is treated with increased doses of androgens, so the patient should let the provider know if he is having problems
May be a sign of early prostate cancer and he should make an appointment for a prostate screening exam
May occur with androgen therapy
Question 15
1 / 1 point
Education of women who are being treated with ophthalmic antibiotics for conjunctivitis includes:
Throwing away eye makeup and purchasing new
Redness and intense burning is normal with ophthalmic antibiotics
When applying eye ointment, set the tip of the tube on the lower lid and squeeze in inch
Use a cotton swab to apply ointment, spreading the ointment all over the lid and in the conjunctival sac
Question 16
1 / 1 point
Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:
Heart failure
Angina
Myocardial infarction
Dyslipidemia
Question 17
1 / 1 point
What is the role of calcium supplements when patients take bisphosphonates?
They must be restricted to allow the medication to work.
They must be taken in sufficient amounts to provide foundational elements for bone growth.
They must be taken at the same time as the bisphosphonates.
They only work with bisphosphonates if daily intake is restricted.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
Isosorbide dinitrate is prescribed for a patient with chronic stable angina. This drug is administered twice daily, but the schedule is 7 a.m. and 2 p.m. because:
It is a long-acting drug with potential for toxicity.
Nitrate tolerance can develop.
Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect.
It must be taken with milk or food.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
If an adult patient with comorbidities cannot reliably take oral antibiotics to treat pneumonia, an appropriate initial treatment option would be:
IV or IM gentamicin
IV or IM ceftriaxone
IV amoxicillin
IV ciprofloxacin
Question 20
1 / 1 point
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act, which is part of the 2006 U.S. Patriot Act:
Requires all providers to screen their patients for methamphetamine use
Restricts the prescribing of amphetamines to U.S. citizens
Requires a prescription be written for all methamphetamine precursors in all states
Restricts the sales of drugs that contain methamphetamine precursors, including a daily and 30-day limit on sales
Question 21
1 / 1 point
The optimal maximum time frame for HRT or estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) is:
2 years
5 years
10 years
15 years
Question 22
1 / 1 point
Patrick is a 10-year-old patient who presents with uncomfortable constipation. Along with diet changes, a laxative is ordered to provide more rapid relief of constipation. An appropriate choice of medication for a 10-year-old child would be:
PEG 3350 (Miralax)
Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) suppository
Docusate (Colace) suppository
Polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution
Question 23
1 / 1 point
Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
Has a tolerability profile with fewer of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
Must be taken no more than twice a day
Question 24
1 / 1 point
Larry is taking allopurinol to prevent gout. Monitoring of a patient who is taking allopurinol includes:
Complete blood count
Blood glucose
C-reactive protein
BUN, creatinine, and creatinine clearance
Question 25
1 / 1 point
A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
Concentration will produce an adverse response
Time between doses must be shortened
Duration of action of the drug is too long
Question 26
1 / 1 point
The New York Heart Association and the Canadian Cardiovascular Society have described grading criteria for levels of angina. Angina that occurs with unusually strenuous activity or on walking or climbing stair after meals is class:
I
II
III
IV
Question 27
1 / 1 point
Opiates are used mainly to treat moderate to severe pain. Which of the following is NOT true about these drugs?
All opiates are scheduled drugs which require a DEA license to prescribe.
Opiates stimulate only mu receptors for the control of pain.
Most of the adverse effects of opiates are related to mu receptor stimulation.
Naloxone is an antagonist to opiates.
Question 28
1 / 1 point
Several classes of drugs have interactions with cholinergic blockers. Which of the following is true about these interactions?
Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range given orally may not stay in the GI tract long enough to produce an action.
Additive antimuscarinic effects may occur with antihistamines.
Cholinergic blockers may decrease the sedative effects of hypnotics.
Cholinergic blockers are contraindicated with antipsychotics.
Question 29
1 / 1 point
Chee is a 15-month-old male whose screening hemoglobin is 10.4 g/dL. Treatment for his anemia would be:
18 mg/day of iron supplementation
6 mg/kg per day of elemental iron
325 mg ferrous sulfate per day
325 mg ferrous sulfate tid
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Goals when treating tuberculosis include:
Completion of recommended therapy
Negative purified protein derivative at the end of therapy
Completely normal chest x-ray
All of the above
Question 31
1 / 1 point
The first-line therapy for mild-persistent asthma is:
High-dose montelukast
Theophylline
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids
Long-acting beta-2-agonists
Question 32
1 / 1 point
Gender differences between men and women in pharmacokinetics include:
More rapid gastric emptying so that drugs absorbed in the stomach have less exposure to absorption sites
Higher proportion of body fat so that lipophilic drugs have relatively greater volumes of distribution
Increased levels of bile acids so that drugs metabolized in the intestine have higher concentrations
Slower organ blood flow rates so drugs tend to take longer to be excreted
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Varenicline (Chantix) may be prescribed for tobacco cessation. Instructions to the patient who is starting varenicline include:
The maximum time varenicline can be used is 12 weeks.
Nausea is a sign of varenicline toxicity and should be reported to the provider.
The starting regimen for varenicline is start taking 1 mg twice a day a week before the quit date.
Neuropsychiatric symptoms may occur.
Question 34
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is a primary benefit of the use of computerized provider order entry for patient medications?
Reduces time that prescribing drugs takes
Eliminates the need to chart drugs prescribed
Decreases prescribing and transcription errors
Helps keep the number of drugs prescribed to a minimum
Question 35
1 / 1 point
The most cost-effective treatment for two or three impetigo lesions on the face is:
Mupirocin ointment
Retapamulin (Altabax) ointment
Topical clindamycin solution
Oral amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin)
Question 36
1 / 1 point
Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of Prodrug
Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs
A need for increased dosages of medications
Increased elimination of an active drug
Question 37
1 / 1 point
Monitoring for patients who are on long-term antifungal therapy with ketoconazole includes:
Platelet count
BUN and creatinine
White blood cell count
AST, ALT, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin
Question 38
1 / 1 point
When a pharmacoeconomic analysis looks at two or more treatment alternatives that are considered equal in efficacy and compares the costs of each it is referred to as:
Cost-minimization analysis
Cost-of-illness analysis
Cost-effectiveness analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
Question 39
1 / 1 point
When considering which cholesterol-lowering drug to prescribe, which factor determines the type and intensity of treatment?
Total LDL
Fasting HDL
Coronary artery disease risk level
Fasting total cholesterol
Question 40
1 / 1 point
Sally has been prescribed aspirin 320 mg per day for her atrial fibrillation. She also takes aspirin four or more times a day for arthritis pain. What are the symptoms of aspirin toxicity for which she would need to be evaluated?
Tinnitus
Diarrhea
Hearing loss
Photosensitivity
Question 41
1 / 1 point
Patients who are on chronic long-term proton pump inhibitor therapy require monitoring for:
Iron deficiency anemia, vitamin B12 and calcium deficiency
Folate and magnesium deficiency
Elevated uric acid levels leading to gout
Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia
Question 42
1 / 1 point
Which of the following holds true for the pharmacokinetics of women?
Gastric emptying is faster than that of men.
Organ blood flow is the same as that of men.
Evidence is strong concerning renal differences in elimination.
Medications that involve binding globulins are impacted by estrogen levels.
Question 43
1 / 1 point
Jamison has been prescribed citalopram (Celexa) to treat his depression. Education regarding how quickly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants work would be:
Appetite and concentration improve in the first 1 to 2 weeks.
Sleep should improve almost immediately upon starting citalopram.
Full response to the SSRI may take 2 to 4 months after he reaches the full therapeutic dose.
His dysphoric mood will improve in 1 to 2 weeks.
Question 44
1 / 1 point
Being competent in the use of information technology in clinical practice is expected in professional nurses. Advanced practice competence includes the ability to:
Search for information using the most common search engines
Serve as content experts in developing, implementing, and evaluating information Systems
Write programs to assure the integrity of health information
Use information technology to prescribe drugs
Question 45
1 / 1 point
According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to:
The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs
Poor compliance on the part of the African American patient
The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans
Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care
Question 46
1 / 1 point
Sook has been prescribed gabapentin to treat neuropathic pain and is complaining of feeling depressed and having “strange” thoughts. The appropriate initial action would be:
Increase her dose
Assess for suicidal ideation
Discontinue the medication immediately
Decrease her dose to half then slowly titrate up the dose
Question 47
1 / 1 point
A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to:
Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen
Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen
Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment
Identify poor metabolizers of tamoxifen
Question 48
0 / 1 point
Male patients who should not be prescribed phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE-5) inhibitors include:
Diabetics
Those who have had an acute myocardial infarction in the past 6 months
Patients who are deaf
Patients under age 60 years of age
Question 49
1 / 1 point
True contraindications to diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP or Tdap) vaccine include:
Fever up to 104oF (40.5oC) after previous DTaP vaccine
Family history of seizures after DTaP vaccine
Adolescent pregnancy
Anaphylactic reaction with a previous dose
Question 50
1 / 1 point
Which the following persons should not have a statin medication ordered?
Someone with 3 first- or second-degree family members with history of muscle issues when started on statins
Someone with high lipids, but low BMI
Premenopausal woman with recent history of hysterectomy
Prediabetic male with known metabolic syndrome